Showing posts with label free will. Show all posts
Showing posts with label free will. Show all posts

Friday, June 20, 2025

Free Will: Still Not Real (reacting to Emerson Green)

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=SBl0I7kTXo8 

"Dennett of course doesn't mean that one can be the author of their thoughts or desires in the maximalist sense, but so what?"

So what is that your actions don't say anything about you in that case, only about what you have. You can describe someone in terms of their non-essential properties, whether they are virtuous or vicious in this or that way. That's obviously important as it lets you know what to expect of their behavior, whether to stay away from them or whether they are safe (or whether they would make for a good interlocutor in a conversation or just resort to name-calling).

But descriptions of non-essential properties are not descriptions of essential properties... obviously. If my essential property is my subjectivity, then everything else about me is non-essential, something I have but not am. (And this is why trying to solve free will without first solving personal identity will never work, I think. How can I make sense of what it means for me to be blamed if I don't know what 'me' is?)

"If I'm not the source of my actions because I didn't self-generate my own nature ex nihilo, then the hose isn't a source of water . . . I think to say that it's false that the hose is a true source of water has some pretty absurd implications if you follow it through . . ."

I'm happy to say that the hose is a source of water, because it's not a source in any sense that gives me reason to be dissuaded from my free will skepticism.

In tort & criminal law you have the "but-for" test to determine factual causation. Ex. But for the fact that I acted (or failed to act) as I did, the injury would not have happened. So my action (or failure to act) is the factual cause of injury. (That's not enough to determine legal responsibility, as my conduct has to be a proximate cause, or I have to have a duty to act, etc. But I digress.)

So the hose is a source of water in the sense that it "passes" the but-for test; but for the hose, I would not have access to water (or, I would have one fewer access points to water).

Likewise, our conduct can pass the but-for test. But that doesn't mean we're free; it doesn't mean that my actions say anything about me even if my actions say something about what I have. And what I have is perfectly morally relevant when it comes to blame, praise, responsibility, punishment, and so on. Like Robert Sapolsky says, if a car has no brakes, you don't let it out onto the roads and risk hurting someone. Likewise, it makes perfect sense to lock up people for the safety of others (and, hopefully, for improving the quality of the incarcerated person so that they can re-integrate into society. But we know that the US prison system couldn't care less about that part). We "praise" (recognize the quality of) cars that function well and "blame" (recognize the poor quality of) them when they don't. We can explain our recourse to praise and blame this way, as a recognition of quality rather than as an accusation of ultimate sourcehood. Indeed, it is by someone's proximate sourcehood that we come to recognize the quality of their kindness, moral reasoning, emotional stability, etc.—qualities they inherited from circumstances.

I'm convinced (any reason why I shouldn't be?) that free will skepticism can make perfect sense of common sense notions of responsibility, blame, praise, punishment, everything, whether in law or moral dilemmas. (Obviously, with the exception of retributive punishment specifically. That doesn't make any sense.)

What explains these dispositions? Where do they come from? Do we choose our dispositions, or are they products of factors beyond our control? It seems to me that compatibilism always kicks the can down the road. Whichever criterion of freedom they cite as the Real Freedom, whether that be acting on desire, or acting on your second-order desires, or acting on self-endorsed values, or acting according to your own sensitivity to reasons, or acting on your own dispositions—for any freedom criterion N, the further question can be asked of what caused N, and we can imagine Pereboom-style scenarios where someone has N and yet intuitively does not have free will, because N was caused by circumstances beyond their control, and the most core intuition we have (certainly, that I have) when it comes to free will is that it's not fair to blame someone for something beyond their control. Put another way, it's not fair to attribute non-essential properties to someone as if they are essential properties.

"We've got the free will we think we have . . ."

I don't think I have any free will. I hear this kind of talk – "We all act as if we're free..." Speak for yourself, I don't! "Given the illusion of free will, we have no choice but to act as if we are free." What illusion? I have no such illusion. My intuitions point me completely and totally toward free will skepticism. I'm happy to admit that I have freedom, which is probably what folks are referring to. Freedom in this sense refers to having options to choose from and the sense of choice that accompanies selecting one option over others. Sure, absolutely, I have that. But while freedom concerns the choices you have available to you, free will concerns the nature of the choice made—does your choice reveal something about you per se or merely about what you have, about your circumstances?

Monday, April 14, 2025

Sartre - Existentialism is a Humanism

Sartre says that ‘existentialism’ refers to the idea that for us humans, existence precedes essence, or in other words, “subjectivity must be the starting point.”[1] (34) He says:

What is meant here by saying that existence precedes essence? It means that, first of all, man exists, turns up, appears on the scene, and, only afterwards, defines himself. If man, as the existentialist conceives him, is indefinable, it is because at first he is nothing. If man, as the existentialist conceives him, is indefinable, it is because at first he is nothing. Only afterward will he be something, and he himself will have made what he will be. Thus, there is no human nature, since there is no God to conceive it. Not only is man what he conceives himself to be, but he is also only what he wills himself to be after this thrust toward existence. Man is nothing else but what he makes of himself. (36)

I disagree. Just because there is no God to create a human nature, it doesn’t follow that there isn’t a human nature waiting to be discovered. I would say exactly that: Humans must discover what they really are. There are obvious constraints on what we can be; we cannot will ourselves to be just anything. Isn’t existentialism as a view supposed to acknowledge our “human condition”, which surely includes acknowledging the chasm between what we can imagine ourselves to be, and what we are forced to be? What we will is not what we get.

We are all too good at creating false narratives around ourselves. We see this in the Old Testament, where the main characters paint themselves as the good guys, chosen by God himself, and the enemy tribes as the bad guys. (There are times the Israelites are painted in a bad light too. The point remains that we tend to see ourselves, and our tribes, as special and others as ordinary, lesser, or depraved.)

We fail to be honest with ourselves about ourselves, because discovering the truth of oneself can be the most difficult and painful thing one can do. What “man makes of himself” is often a fiction convenient for his ego and survival.

I suppose Sartre has it in mind that there is no objective truth (that we have access to anyway) as to what we really are. But if that’s right, then why do some people reject their old identity as false? It's undeniable that some people will believe something about themselves, their family, their community, or their tribe, and reject those beliefs when the evidence—combined with a certain sensitivity to evidence and a certain concern for accepting the truth regardless of its cost—forces them to give up those beliefs. Often the greatest critics of Christianity, for example, are ex-Christians.

Case in point, I once believed that Christians were more moral than non-Christians, because of God’s judgment. But then I learned about the challenges to Christian belief, and about the nature of morality, and discovered that if anything Christians are specially primed to moral ignorance. Often Christians have good intentions in that they intend to follow reality’s rules. It’s just that they’ve got reality all wrong, and so deep problems emerge. (In history Christians have used their beliefs to justify slavery, racism, homophobia, misogyny, burning people at the stake, selling indulgences, covering up for abusers, forgiving abuses all too easily and pressuring victims to forgive abusers, promoted policies of forced birth despite the lack of biblical support for this, supported, and still support, the moral horrors of hell, atonement, and God’s allowing of horrendous evils, and, in recent history, many Christians have aligned themselves with Trump, an obvious non-Christian, demonstrating that for them Christianity was never about truth but about tribalism and power.) 

I discovered the falsity of my beliefs. I didn't invent anything. I discovered the falsity of Christianity, and the falsity of the idea that Christians were somehow more moral or more worthy of God's approval than non-Christians. Surely Sartre, as someone who rejects religion, would understand what I am saying? Or would Sartre seriously affirm the following contradiction?:

(A) There are some people who view themselves as Children of God who are saved by Jesus and will end up in heaven.

(A2) So, there really are some people who are Children of God who are saved by Jesus and will end up in heaven. (And so, God really exists.)

(B) There are some people who view themselves as conscious organisms sprung from an evolutionary process resulting from laws of nature that are brutely contingent or brutely necessary. They see themselves as ceasing to exist when they die because there is no God.

(B2) So, there really are some people who are conscious organisms sprung from an evolutionary process resulting from laws of nature that are brutely contingent or brutely necessary and who will cease to exist when they die because there is no God. (And so, God really does not exist.)

Of course, Sartre would not affirm this contradiction. I imagine Sartre would deny that his view entails that A2 follows from A and that B2 follows from B. To suggest that is to suggest that our self-perceptions create some external, objective reality when the whole point is that there is no external, objective reality (not one accessible by us anyway), and so we have no choice but to live through a subjective lens. “Man is nothing else but what he makes of himself” means not that we create something real, but that all we have is our self-perceptions. And thus, we are radically free to perceive ourselves one way or another.

But this quickly turns into an epistemology debate as to the nature of knowledge and our access to it. Anything that is too skeptical runs the risk of self-contradiction. By what method does Sartre discover the truth that “Man is nothing else but what he makes of himself”? If the method is unreliable, then we have no reason to agree with Sartre. If the method is reliable, then we do have reliable methods by which to discover truths of human nature. And if we have reliable methods by which to discover truths of human nature, then it’s not the case that all we have is our self-perceptions. We can use these methods to discover truths about ourselves.

EJ Lowe makes a similar point within the context of metaphysics:[2]

Some people believe that the age of metaphysics is past and that what metaphysicians aspire to achieve is an impossible dream. They claim that it is an illusion to suppose that human beings can formulate and justify an undistorted picture of the fundamental structure of reality – either because reality is inaccessible to us or else because it is a myth to suppose that a reality independent of our beliefs exists at all. To these sceptics I reply that the pursuit of metaphysics is inescapable for any rational being and that they themselves demonstrate this in the objections which they raise against it. To say that reality is inaccessible to us or that there is no reality independent of our beliefs is just to make a metaphysical claim. And if they reply by admitting this while at the same time denying that they or any one else can justify metaphysical claims by reasoned argument, then my response is twofold. First, unless they can give me some reason for thinking that metaphysical claims are never justifiable, I do not see why I should accept what they say about this. Secondly, if they mean to abandon reasoned argument altogether, even in defence of their own position, then I have nothing more to say to them because they have excluded themselves from further debate.

Returning to Sartre:

“To choose to be this or that is to affirm at the same time the value of what we choose, because we can never choose evil.” (37)

I agree that no one deliberately does wrong. I think this view fits nicely on free will skepticism, though Sartre takes it that it increases our moral responsibility, because by affirming what we take to be good, we affirm what we take to be good for everyone. And so, one not only takes responsibility for themselves, but for all humankind. Consider: 

If . . . existence precedes essence, and if we grant that we exist and fashion our image at one and the same time, the image is valid for everybody and for our whole age. Thus, our responsibility is much greater than we might have supposed. . . . my action has involved all humanity. To take a more individual matter, if I want to marry, to have children; even if this marriage depends solely on my own circumstances or passion or wish, I am involving all humanity in monogamy and not merely myself. Therefore, I am responsible for myself and for everyone else. I am creating a certain image of man of my own choosing. In choosing myself, I choose man. (37)

Response (1): Is it true that existence precedes essence?

On one reading, I disagree with this statement. On another reading, I agree with it. First, on the reading in which I disagree: Essence refers to essential properties. You can’t have essential properties without having properties. You can’t have properties without existence. And thus, essence and existence are simultaneous, and it’s false that existence precedes essence.

On the reading in which I agree that existence precedes essence: While it's true that the properties of an object we consider to be essential to that object are simultaneous with the existence of that object, and indeed we cannot even understand the very notion of existence without said properties, the consideration of what counts as essential is up to us.

We couldn’t have the experiences we do without real properties causing those experiences. We then bundle those properties under labels so we can communicate with others about our environment. I’m happy to say that our notions of ordinary objects, just like the words we use to label them, are made up as useful social constructs, and that there really are no objects over and above the properties that describe them. It’s up to us to include or exclude properties and property bundles under each label. What excludes something from a particular label is its failure to have the properties deemed essential to that label, and what counts as essential is purely a human construct.

The existence of properties precedes their bundling by us, and in that sense existence precedes essence. But this does not remotely give us free license to choose what essences things have. We are bound by rules of convention, practicality, and common sense.

Consider two objects, a mountain and a lake. Mountains and lakes have different properties. We climb mountains and swim in lakes. We do not swim in mountains or climb in lakes. Mountains are large, rocky geological formations, and lakes are bodies of water. And so on. It’s not clear at first what counts as a mountain or what counts as a lake. That is, it’s not clear what the essential properties of these things are. If the mountain gets small enough, at some point it becomes a hill. If the lake gets small enough, at some point it becomes a pond. 

The problem of vagueness is one of the main reasons to think that objects are just social constructs. If objects exist over and above their properties, then mountains and hills as such truly exist, and there would be an exact moment the mountain becomes a hill were we to shrink it. But what could that exact moment possibly be? There’s no non-arbitrary answer. It makes more sense to say that there is no objective truth of the matter of when a mountain becomes a hill or when a lake becomes a pond; it’s just a matter of the social convention surrounding how these words are used and the general intuitions we form by these conventions.

There is a fact of the matter about those conventions, which is why I say we do not have free license to choose what properties count as essential for any given bundle of properties. It’s not up to a single person. If I pointed at a creek and said to someone, “I will jump into that lake over there”, the person I’m speaking with will look confused and say, “‘Lake’?! That's not a lake!” If my interlocutor cannot come up with a precise definition of lake, that is irrelevant. We just use our intuition. Essences need not be precisely known to be there. If there weren’t an essence to ‘lake’, then my interlocutor would not have said “That's not a lake” as if it were the most obvious thing in the world.

We bundle so automatically, effortlessly, and instantly, that it’s impossible for us not to bundle as soon as we are capable of understanding our physical environment. So psychologically speaking, even bundling happens at the same time the properties cause us to experience them. (The only exception perhaps being when we are infants, right before we’ve developed basic language abilities. But the moment we have labels, we have bundles.) Of course, many properties existed before humans did, and in that sense existence precedes essence in that the existence of properties precedes humans assigning essences to bundles. The properties that make up mountains and lakes existed before humans bundled them under the labels ‘mountain’ and ‘lake.’

Response (2): I don't see how anything can be “valid for everybody” if we are what we make ourselves to be. Why would Sartre deny absolute truth only to affirm it?

Perhaps Sartre is saying that it would be hypocritical of us to make ourselves an exception to rules we live by, and thus, if we want to avoid the irrationality of hypocrisy, we have no choice but to include everyone under our rules. How Kantian! But a problem with Kant’s universalization applies here too, which brings me to Response 3:

Response (3): It’s clearly false that if I marry, then I am involving all of humanity in my marriage. When a gay couple gets married, does that mean they are involving all of humanity in the sense that they believe only gay marriage should be allowed? I trust that Sartre isn’t saying something so silly. But recall what Sartre says:

To take a more individual matter, if I want to marry, to have children; even if this marriage depends solely on my own circumstances or passion or wish, I am involving all humanity in monogamy and not merely myself. (37)

This sounds clearly false to me. Obviously when we make decisions for ourselves, we very much do not include all of humanity. We include only those people who exist in circumstances relevantly similar to our own (or even only exactly our own). We may consider, and rightly consider, our own circumstances to be so unique that while we rightly approve of a decision we make, we rightly condemn anyone else making the same decision, because, after all, it’s not the same decision.

We tend to abstract out actions and universalize them, when in reality actions are never universal. No one ever merely “gets an abortion”; instead, it’s always this person getting this abortion in these circumstances and for these reasons. There will always be at least slight differences from one story to the next.

With that said, universalizing actions isn’t always wrong, as it is often the case that the details between two stories are morally equivalent such that the reasons to refrain from the action in one story will apply just as well to the next. But we always run the risk of misapplying things when we do this. It would be a misapplication, for instance, to think that someone must believe that all abortions of all kinds are justified regardless of circumstances just because they had an abortion. (Not to mention, we universalize actions because it would be way too complicated not to. We cannot come up with endless versions of the word “theft” to include all imaginable variations of morally significant circumstances in which someone commits theft.)

So first, we have the epistemic aspect of existentialism, which appears to make existentialism a form of skepticism with respect to our ability to access the truth about human nature. I’m more optimistic of our ability to access truth, and I would want to steer clear from the kind of skepticism that becomes self-defeating.

Then second, we have the metaphysical aspect of existentialism of “existence precedes essence.” If we read that as saying “Properties precede essential properties”, then I have mixed feelings. Psychologically, properties are simultaneous with essential properties in the sense that humans bundle properties under labels as soon as they start learning language. 

Ontologically, properties and essential properties exist simultaneously, as essential properties are a social carve-out of the properties already there.

Though I’m happy to say that properties exist prior to our bundling them under labels, and in that sense properties exist prior to their essentializing by us. But that doesn’t mean we can choose which properties are essential; that’s up to the complex confluence of sociolinguistic influences. All we can do is try to identify the essential properties of things.

So I don't see us as radically free to self-determine what we are. We are locked into what we are, and it’s up to us to discover and accept what we are or fail to discover or fail to accept what we are.


[1] Sarte, Jean-Paul. Essays in Existentialism. Secaucus: Citadel Press, 1965.

[2] Lowe, E.J. An Introduction to the Philosophy of Mind. New York: Cambridge University Press, 2004.

Sunday, March 23, 2025

My free will skepticism is compatible with a variety of views on consciousness

I was worried for a second that because my view on free will involves making a sharp distinction between the self as a subject that chooses (or experiences the choices its brain makes) and the self as an organism or animal, that I commit myself to a very specific theory of mind. The problem then would be that I would feel compelled to defend that theory of mind not because I thought it was true, but because I need it to be true for my view on free will to make sense. I guess I hoped that it only commits me to aspect dualism, which is a hill I'm happy to die on anyway, because I cannot imagine dispensing with either mental or physical properties.

But now it seems to me that we can obviously distinguish between the self as mental and the self as physical on a variety of views. My free will skepticism is openly available.

Identity theory says that there are mental properties, but these properties reduce to physical ones. So we have the mental self, which is a special subset of the human organism's physical properties (brain properties), and we have the non-mental self, which is the set of the remaining physical properties. No one chooses their brain properties, and so no one chooses their mental properties. But all deeds done are done by brain properties. So all deeds done are traced to factors outside the person's control. You still have good and bad people, it's just that no one is responsible for their goodness or badness.

I'm pretty sure epiphenomenalism immediately entails free will skepticism anyway, so that one doesn't matter. (Identity theory probably does too, but whatever.) Epiphenomenalism says that there is no mental causation. So you don't cause anything; everything that you experience is caused by your brain interacting with your environment. Not only are you not responsible for your actions, but technically you don't have any actions to be responsible for. Your soul is a pure byproduct, a spectator.

I'm pretty sure behaviorism immediately entails free will skepticism too? If consciousness is just behavior, then the self is just behavior, and so there is no self that causes the behavior, and so there is no self to blame. Behaviorism is so easily refuted that it's a moot point anyway.

Functionalism is trickier. Can the self / qualia / subjectivity be analyzed in terms of function? If functionalism implies that philosophical zombies can be conscious, then that's a problem. But why couldn't we say qualia is a function? You certainly have a sharp break between the mind as a function and the material that gives rise to the mind. So there you have the two senses of "I" and "You" that I need for my free will skepticism. But functionalism might immediately lead to free will skepticism anyway because if the self is a function and functions are traced to factors beyond the control of the function, then traceability will apply to the functional self.

Now that I think about it, it's really hard to see how free will can fit on any theory of mind. It certainly doesn't fit on eliminativism.

That seems to leave only substance dualism and monistic idealism as refuges for free will. But again traceability concerns apply, not to mention all the arguments against these views.

I guess free will just really doesn't make sense to me at all.

Recently, getting into action theory, I wondered whether you could defend free will on the basis that if someone does something knowingly wrong, then surely the person who causes this action is morally responsible for it. But two things came to mind: one, I'm highly suspicious of the possibility of akrasia, the weakness of will needed for this kind of deliberate evil, and two, even if akrasia is possible, you could run into traceability problems there. People who have akrasia don't choose to have it, and we can trace their akrasia to their genetics, environment, etc. So even something as solid as the idea of deliberately doing wrong doesn't save free will.

Sunday, March 16, 2025

Anna Nyman - "Moral Principles: A Challenge for Deniers of Moral Luck" (2024)

The problem of moral luck has its origins, at least in its modern conception, with Thomas Nagel. 

The author notes: "A familiar understanding of the problem of moral luck has it that it consists in a contradiction to which common-sense ideas about moral responsibility seem to commit us: that moral luck exists and that it does not." (Anna Nyman, 177)

I wonder if this paradox just is the paradox of blaming the human qua person vs blaming the human qua organism? In one sense we are not blameworthy at all – in the sense of moral blame, which is the sense of whether there is anything bad we can say about the soul itself. I argue that we cannot judge souls; souls are passengers, experiencing life. Even our choices are just experiences. On a more epiphenomenal interpretation, our choices are literally just experiences; we don't cause anything. On a more common sensical interpretation, we do in fact cause things and we do make choices, but in doing so we are merely experiencing the decision making qualities that have been handed to us by nature and nurture. Either way, we merely experience our choices and cannot be blamed for them, not in the sense of judging the poor soul (or the happy soul) who gets to enjoy (or suffers from) the choices they will make, borne out of the poor qualities of nature and/or nurture surrounding the soul that the soul had no control over.

But in another sense we are totally blameworthy. You can acknowledge the goodness or badness of these qualities. And in this sense of critical blame, we can legitimately criticise people. But we aren't criticizing their souls; those we (should) feel nothing but sympathy (or envy) for. We legitimately criticize people in the sense that we legitimately evaluate the goodness or badness of the qualities that people happen to have, but cannot be identified with. You have the quality of being young, smart, attractive, kind, selfish, narcissistic, jealous, or what have you, but you are not identified with these qualities. These qualities are part of you, or associated with you, or you possess or have them, but you are not identical to them. You are identical to yourself, which is a pure subject, a self, the self which is not only right in front of you, but is the front in front of all fronts.

The classic case of moral luck that I believe is from Nagel is the two drivers who drive recklessly. Both drivers selfishly take on the chance of getting someone hurt just so they can have some fun. One driver crashes into another car, killing an innocent person. The other driver does no damage to anything. Intuitively, the driver that actually caused damage is more blameworthy than the driver that did not (they are the one who goes to jail). And yet, both drivers committed the same selfish act. So intuitively, both drivers are equal in their guilt.

Our author today gives examples of assassins. Both assassins intend to kill for money. One succeeds. The other does not because a bird flies in the way, taking the hit. Again, both perpetrators had the exact same evil intention. But because of chance events, only one evil act is actually completed, and it's this assassin that takes the greater blame. If the assassin that fails has the better moral character, it's only thanks to the luck of having a bird fly through at the right moment. Intuitively, this lucky moral character should count for nothing in terms of moral value.

Our author gives three examples of moral luck (thought experiments are mine, though I'm sure I've heard similar versions elsewhere):

Resultant moral luck: this is the assassin or the reckless driver as described above.

Circumstantial moral luck: imagine two people come across a wallet full of cash. One has a great job and is doing well financially. He returns the wallet. The other is homeless and broke. He takes the money. 

The person who returns the wallet does the right thing. But if they do the right thing purely because of the good fortune of their circumstances, where's the moral value in that?

Likewise, for the person who takes the money, if they would have returned the wallet under different circumstances, then how does their taking the money disparage their moral character when it's the circumstances, not their character, that causes the difference in action?

Constitutive moral luck: again imagine two people come across a wallet full of cash. Neither person needs the money. One takes it anyway because he enjoys the thrill of getting away with things. The other returns the wallet because he would have a guilty conscience otherwise.

Again, the person who returns the wallet does the right thing, but only because their constitution was so shaped by nature and nurture. They were raised by morally upright parents and taught that stealing is wrong, maybe they recently had their own wallet stolen giving them a sense of empathy, their brain structure is such that they have a strong sense of conscience, and so on.

The person who takes the money does the wrong thing, but only because they were unlucky enough to have their dispositions shaped by unfortunate life circumstances.

Because your constitution is a result of circumstances, I don't see why we couldn't just subsume constitutive luck under circumstantial luck? While we're at it, resultant luck could be described in terms of circumstances as well, like the circumstances of a bird flying through the air at the right moment. Even if a circumstance was purely result-based, like in radioactive decay, then you still have the circumstances of the decay happening this moment rather than another. So it seems like we could solidly fit "resultant luck" under circumstantial luck. 
 
But calling luck circumstantial seems like a redundancy, considering what it means to be lucky just is to have circumstances in your favor that are beyond your control. So it seems to me that we can simplify all the above terms (Resultant moral luck; Circumstantial moral luck; Constitutive moral luck) to just one: moral luck. How are these distinctions meant to be useful?

What it means to be "committed" to moral luck is to be committed to the idea that the person who does the right thing really is praiseworthy, despite doing the right thing only by good luck. 

(Assuming being a morally good person is a lucky thing to be. You could argue that there are circumstances where being a morally good person is very unlucky, because it will cause you to fight against evil and die a horrible death.) 

And, the person who does the wrong thing really is blameworthy, despite doing the wrong thing only by bad luck.

Contrast this commitment to a commitment to the control principle, which says that "agents are responsible for something only to the extent that it depends on factors within their control" (Anna Nyman, 179).

These are the two clashing intuitions...

(L) people are praiseworthy / blameworthy despite moral luck. 

(The assassin that hits their target really is more blameworthy than the assassin who misses.)

(C) people are only praiseworthy / blameworthy if they are in control.

(Both assassins are equally blameworthy or blameless.)

...that form the paradox of moral luck.

And yes, I see my distinction between kinds of persons as an immediate solution to the moral luck problem. I absolutely deny L and affirm C. But I affirm L in a critical sense. I can acknowledge the badness of a hurricane without blaming any person. Likewise, I can acknowledge the badness (or goodness) of (dispositions, constitution, brain structure, sensitivity to reasons, upbringing, traumas, genetics, psychological factors... basically, nature and nurture) that a person has without blaming the person per se.

It's confusing because we use terms like "blame" and "praise" both in the sense of "attributing sourcehood" and in the sense of "regarding with awe or spite."

It's important that we separate these two senses. I call one set "moral" praise and blame and the other set "critical" praise and blame. Though, we could call moral praise and blame "praise and blame" and call critical praise and blame "love and hatred" or "awe and criticism" or "celebration and condemnation" or "beholding the goodness / badness of."

Here's a picture of things that might illuminate what I am imagining.

Imagine that souls begin in heaven. God speaks to us and says, "Do you want to go down there? Down to earth?" 

Some of us say no and stay behind in heaven. Some say yes and are let down to earth. 

"What will it be like if I go down there?", one soul asks.

God says, "Well, you will possess the body and brain of a man named John Smith. You will be a coal miner working for a company town. Your miserable and unfair working conditions will make you a terrible person, and you will become abusive to your wife and children. Alcohol becomes your only escape and you die middle-aged from liver failure."

And the soul responds, "That sounds, uh, bad. I don't want to do that."

And God says, "Too bad" and the poor soul is flung down to earth.

(God is not a good guy in this story.)

The poor soul proceeds to do all the things God said it would do. The soul is just a witness to its own choices and experiences.

Question: is anything the man does the fault of the soul? No. The soul is just the unlucky subject that happens to be attached to the poor body, poor brain, and poor circumstances of the doomed miner. (And the souls attached to his abused family members are likewise unlucky.)

(This is not to advocate for substance dualism. The point is to show that subjectivity itself is on the receiving end of the body it's attached to. If it's true that the quality of your brain is something that happens to you, and is not your fault, then the poor quality of the soul's choices, caused by the brain, are not the soul's fault either.)

Continuing with the article:

Per the author, "The most popular strategy is to abandon the particular moral responsibility judgments", that is, to accept C and reject L. (Nyman, 179)

However, abandoning moral responsibility judgments sounds like... free will skepticism! If someone abandons all moral responsibility judgments, doesn't that amount to endorsing free will skepticism? But if someone abandons only some moral responsibility judgments but not others, how do you tell which judgments are worthy of abandonment and which aren't? Where do you draw the line? Is this the problem that Nyman is pointing out?

I will quote an extended passage that gets at the heart of the issue:
I believe, however, that consistently denying moral luck is harder than previously recognized, because there seems to be little room for denying that certain factors are both beyond agents’ control and affect moral responsibility. Consider, for instance, the truth of principles about moral responsibility and the deontic status of actions. It is beyond an agent’s control that a correct moral principle condemns a certain action of hers as wrong, and yet the principle’s condemning it surely affects her moral responsibility in that it is because the principle is true that she will, given that she fulfils conditions for moral responsibility, be blameworthy for the action rather than praiseworthy. Likewise, it is beyond an agent’s control that a correct moral principle says that agents who act as she does are blameworthy for what they do rather than praiseworthy. Yet the principle’s saying so plainly affects her moral responsibility in that it is because the principle is true that she is blameworthy rather than praiseworthy. Thus, since moral principles are both beyond agents’ control and affect moral responsibility, it would seem that quite a bit of moral luck exists. (179-80)
(Emphasis mine.)
 
First, I accept the point that moral principles are indeed beyond our control. Consider a pair of individuals. One subscribes to what Nietzsche would refer to as a "slave morality," where virtue is identified with a lack of imposing oneself onto others, poverty, kindness, and non-violence. The other subscribes to a "master morality", where virtue is identified with domination, possessing material goods, and power. The person who happens to be born into peasantry is conveniently placed in the path of slave morality. The person who happens to be born into royalty is conveniently placed in the path of master morality.

I don't know if Nietzsche would make this point, but I would say that it's mighty convenient when your ethics match up with what comes easiest to you. We should be highly suspicious of such ethics. And yet, surely there are true ethical principles (assuming moral realism is true). And surely for some people those principles will line up with their circumstances such that they find it easy to be an objectively good person, whereas someone in different circumstances finds it much harder, through no fault of their own.

I don't see how this is any different from constitutive moral luck. After all, didn't we have true moral principles in mind when we were discussing the luck of ending up with a good constitution? And the luck of ending up with a good constitution is a matter of circumstance. In a footnote the author mentions that we can think of moral principle luck as circumstantial luck.

The slave/master morality scenario could be given as an example of constitutive luck: the meek peasant is constituted a decent person while the ambitious prince, say, is constituted a tyrant. Which one counts as the decent person and the other the moral failure is a matter of what the true moral principles happen to be.

So the angle of the luck of moral principles does give us another perspective through which to look at things, another level of non-control we have as moral agents. Needless to say, that fits well with free will skepticism, even if it doesn't really add any new evidence for free will skepticism, given that it's just moral luck rotated to reveal another surface.

I suppose you could take this opportunity to argue that a prince who takes on a slave morality out of their own sensitivity to reasons is demonstrating free will, given how they are "going out of their way" to adopt a certain ethical system. In this case, the prince is not adopting an ethical system out of convenience, but conviction.

However, this does nothing to give the prince any moral praiseworthiness, beyond the awe or admiration discussed earlier. The reason is because while it looks like the prince is using his free will to overcome his bias, in fact there are inputs that shape the prince's morality just like everything else, inputs beyond his control.

People who "overcome their circumstances" or "rise above their inclinations" – language pro-free-will folks use – in reality it's the intelligence and empathy, features of the brain, that cause the prince to feel the way he does to the point that it would be harder for him to take on a different ethical system. He is still very much acting within his natural inclinations.

Back to the task at hand: if moral principles are out of our control, and yet affect our moral responsibility, then there is moral luck, and a lot of it. Yes, I accept this, in one sense, and reject it in another. Whether someone has high moral qualities and is thus admirable (in the same way a beautiful vista is admirable) is a matter of luck. True moral principles determine which qualities are really "high" versus "poor." But whether someone, as a pure subject, is blameworthy in the sense of at fault or being the cause of or the source of despite having no control – that I reject wholeheartedly, and in that sense I "abandon all moral responsibility judgments." And so free will skepticism, combined with a bifurcated view of the self, solves moral luck quite nicely.
 
Now, calling them moral qualities might cause confusion, but it shouldn't. No, they are not moral qualities in the sense of indicating blameworthiness or praiseworthiness on the part of the soul. But they are moral qualities in the sense of qualities that pertain to moral contexts – rationality, sensitivity to reasons, reasonableness, kindness, level-headedness, selflessness, and so on. While these are admirable moral qualities, it is a matter of luck to what degree any person possesses any of them at any time, and so we cannot fairly attribute credit to the souls that happen to have them. That doesn't reduce the goodness (hence, the admirability) of having these qualities, as these qualities lead to flourishing for the person who has them and for those around them. (Generally this is true. As mentioned, in theory being virtuous could be hazardous to your health. You could have a tyrant who wants to crush all kind people, in which case being kind threatens your flourishing. But obviously this hazard only exists ultimately because of a lack of kindness – a lack in the tyrant.)

At this point, I don't feel the need to continue discussing the article here. At the end, the author acknowledges that free will skepticism solves the problem of relevant differences, but also notes that most deniers of moral luck will find free will skepticism an unattractive option. Free will skepticism, however, is a highly attractive option, and its ability to neatly solve the moral luck paradox, and a host of other problems, is why.

Tuesday, March 11, 2025

React: Analytic Christian - "The Terrifying Truth About Moral Luck (You’re Not as Free as You Think!)"

I left the following comments on Jordan Hampton's new interview on free will. It's excellent! https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bW0TO8bG7mg 

Sometimes it's hard being a free will skeptic, because so few people take free will skepticism seriously. (Per the 2020 Philpapers survey, it's something like 77% of philosophers that believe in free will, and only 11% that deny it, with the rest undecided.) So it's nice to see some pressure against free will :)

Curious that Dr. Pendergraft denies 3 for reasons of resilience and austerity. It seems immediately arguable to me that denying 1 is better for those reasons. For resilience, we've already seen how as science has advanced, our human tendency to attribute agency where there is none is shown to mislead us. We attributed lightning strikes to gods, and seizures to demonic possession. Now we know better. So over time, more and more agency has been kicked out, with naturalistic mechanisms taking on the explanatory role. We've also advanced in our understanding in biology, psychology, and psychoanalysis. Human behavior has grown more and more explainable without need to appeal to free will. These are points Robert Sapolsky makes in his book Determined (at least something along these lines). Recently I discovered that BF Skinner denied free will exactly because he thought we can explain human behavior without appeal to it. (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NeK8GNLylkc, skip to 3:00.) Denying free will is the most scientific and future-proof strategy, it seems to me.

On the side of austerity, that's simple: By positing the kind of control you need to be morally responsible, you run the risk of positing something that does not exist. The putative benefit to positing the kind of control needed for moral responsibility is to explain data, such as our moral intuitions, better than free will skepticism can. But I'm convinced that free will skepticism explains our moral intuitions better too.

Tuesday, March 4, 2025

Pereboom Paraphrased

I evaluate Derk Pereboom’s argument in his 1995 paper "Determinism Al Dente". In Part 1 I paraphrase his argument and reasoning in favor of hard incompatibilism, the view that moral responsibility is incompatible with both determinism and indeterminism. In Part 2 I articulate a theoretical objection from a compatibilist standpoint. In Part 3 I consider how a proponent of Pereboom’s argument would respond to this objection. I conclude that Pereboom’s argument is successful.

Part 1: Pereboom’s argument

I formulate Pereboom’s argument as a simple syllogism:

1) If we are morally responsible, then our actions are self-determined. (Premise 1)

2) Our actions are not self-determined. (Premise 2)

3) Therefore, we are not morally responsible. (Modus Tollens)

The first premise says that moral responsibility requires self-determination. Why believe this first premise? For Pereboom, the fundamental incompatibilist intuition is the following: "moral responsibility requires that one’s action not result from a process that traces back to factors beyond one’s control." We might call this the “Traceability Principle” – if my actions can be traced to factors beyond my control, then those factors, not me, are to blame. For Pereboom, us not having moral responsibility means we “never deserve blame for having performed a wrongful act.” So for us to deserve blame for our actions, our actions must trace back to us, and the buck must stop with us. 

Premise 1 is easy to motivate. We feel it unfair when we are blamed for something beyond our control. Even a child will insist that something was an accident to avoid getting in trouble. We feel we do not deserve blame when we do something—or are something—we were forced to do or be. Consider someone who robs a bank. We naturally blame the bank robber for their actions, because their actions trace to their choices, and their choices trace back to their act of choosing. But say we discover that the bank robber was mind-controlled by a super villain. Now we trace the actions of the robber to the mind controller, and so we shift our blame accordingly. So it can seem like someone’s actions trace back to them when really they trace to something external (in this case, a super villain, but in a more realistic case, to the laws of nature). We thought the robber’s actions said something bad about the robber, but really they only speak to how unlucky the “robber” was to be a victim of mind control.

Why think Premise 2 is true, that our actions are not self-determined? While the bank robber’s actions were not self-determined, surely the actions of the mind controller were? Not so, argues Pereboom. Either determinism is true or indeterminism is true. But if determinism is true, our actions are not self-determined. And if indeterminism is true, our actions are not self-determined. So no matter what, our actions are not self-determined, not even the mind controller’s. Just as we shifted blame from the bank robber to the mind controller, we must shift blame from the mind controller to the laws of nature—things beyond anyone’s control. No person is at fault for anything; that’s the view to which free will skepticism amounts.

Why think that if determinism is true, then our actions are not self-determined? We might appeal again to the bank robber case. If the bank robber’s actions are determined by the mind controller, then the robber’s actions are not self-determined. But if the robber’s actions are determined by the laws of nature, then the robber’s actions are likewise not self-determined. What relevant difference is there between the two cases? In one case the robber is a victim to a malevolent agent. In the other case the robber is the victim of a rough childhood, poor opportunities, poor genetics, a lack of access to educational resources, or various traumas or social pressures, or some combination thereof. In both cases, the robber’s body is performing the actions of robbing a bank, but the robber as a thinking, feeling, conscious person is performing those actions not out of pure inner choice, but by force of circumstances. 

Why think that if indeterminism is true, then our actions are not self-determined? Here is where my language of “self-determined” proves useful. Some people argue that determinism is necessary for free will. Others argue it’s a detriment. Some argue that indeterminism is necessary for free will. Others argue that it’s a detriment. To keep things simple and clear, it’s best to talk about self-determination. Just by the term alone we immediately see the gist of the problem with appealing to indeterminism to rescue free will. If moral responsibility requires self-determination, then free will indeed requires a kind of determinism! So if indeterminism is true, this threatens moral responsibility.

But let’s give a specific reason for thinking that indeterminism threatens moral responsibility. If indeterminism is true, then it’s probably true at the level that current quantum mechanics describes. At least, we have no reason to ignore our current best science. But accepting this picture of things amounts to saying that when we deliberate between options, the option we end up with is, ironically, determined by random quantum events. Again, this is why language of self-determination is useful; on this language, indeterminism is actually a kind of (non-self) determinism. Put simply, if our choices are random, then our choices are not up to us. 

A more charitable interpretation of indeterminism says something like the following: if determinism is true, then we can imagine a machine that can predict all future events using the information of all past events plus the laws of nature. But let’s say that the past plus the laws of nature cannot entail the future until an important bit of information is added to our prediction machine: the actual choice of the free agent. So the prediction machine is “waiting” for that last input, the actual choice of the free agent, so that it can predict what the future will be. But the actual choice of the free agent does not occur until the present moment – the moment of the choice in the free agent’s mind. So the future can never be predicted. But surely a few moments before the actual choice of the free agent, the machine has enough information to predict what will happen only fractions of a second later.

But if the machine has enough information to predict that, then why couldn’t it predict what will happen just a few moments before? And a few moments before that? Now we have a regress problem. What is the non-arbitrary stopping point on this regress? 

Plus, are humans really that unpredictable that this machine would be unable to predict human choices? Given the fact that we can psychoanalyze and trace our choices back to obvious motivations and psychological inputs, it seems like human choice would not be so unpredictable.

Part 2: Objection

Recall Premise 1: If we are morally responsible, then our actions are self-determined. A compatibilist could reject this premise, giving the following syllogism in response: 

1) If our free actions speak to our moral qualities, then moral responsibility does not require self-determination.

2) Our free actions speak to our moral qualities.

3) Therefore, moral responsibility does not require self-determination.

Recall the question asked earlier about the relevant difference between the robber being manipulated by a super villain and the robber being determined by the laws of nature. One response is to point out that in the case of manipulation, there is nothing to be said about the moral quality of the robber. The robber is purely a victim in that circumstance. But there is something to be said about the robber’s moral character in the case of determination. If we define moral blameworthiness in terms of moral quality, then we are blameworthy, and hence morally responsible, for those actions that speak to our moral qualities even when determined. Put simply, if someone is determined to be a bad person, then they are still in fact a bad person and can be judged accordingly. Or put another way, what we really care about is what our actions say about us. And if our actions are free in the right way, then our actions do in fact reveal morally significant facts about our character, even if that character is determined and therefore not our fault.

Part 3: Reply

The free will skeptic can respond by distinguishing between two kinds of blame, what I would refer to as moral blame and critical blame. Someone is morally blameworthy just when their actions say something meaningful about their moral character. Someone is worthy of criticism just when their surface-level qualities are lacking. Put another way, we can blame the person as a subject who thinks, feels, and experiences, and we can blame the person as an organism or animal.

The free will skeptic must deny the legitimacy of moral blame. Nothing anyone ever does says anything meaningful about them as a person qua subject. Subjects are merely along for the ride, bearing witness to their own choices but not in control of them. Our actions speak only to a subject’s circumstances; the subject per se is merely lucky or unlucky to be attached to the body and brain to which they happen to be attached.

But there are many things we do that reflect our various qualities, or lack thereof, as an organism. A brain and a body are something we have, but not something we are, as far as this response is concerned. Brains and bodies have different qualities, qualities not up to us. Most fundamentally, we do not choose our intelligence, our rationality, our sensitivity to reasons, or our access to reasons for performing or refraining from actions.

Separating these kinds of blame allows me to take a critical (or praising) stance against a person (organism) and acknowledge their shortcomings (or excellences), while simultaneously attributing no blame (or credit) to the person (subject) for those shortcomings (or excellences).

Part 4: Evaluation

We started with the following argument:

If we are morally responsible, then our actions are self-determined. (Premise 1)

Our actions are not self-determined. (Premise 2)

Therefore, we are not morally responsible. (Modus Tollens)

I’m convinced that our actions are not self-determined. I’m further convinced that for our actions to say anything significant about us as subjects, our actions must be self-determined. Therefore, it logically follows that our actions say nothing morally significant, good or bad, about us as subjects. Our actions only reveal how lucky or unlucky we are as subjects to be attached to the brains and bodies to which we happen to be attached.

Luckily, we can still preserve common sense ideas of praise and blame on this view. While our actions say nothing significant about us as subjects, they do speak volumes about the qualities we have. We are highly interested in knowing which humans around us are rational, for example, as rational humans can be reasoned with, allowing us to improve their behavior. But we shouldn’t blame (or credit) people for having the qualities they do, as our qualities are not up to us. We can explain our common attitudes of praise and blame as acknowledgement of qualities.

I’ve heard those who believe in free will say that while we have no choice over the hand we are dealt, we do have free will over how we play our hand. But this metaphor is mistaken. How you play your hand depends on qualities you have, qualities you did not choose. How you play your hand is part of the hand you are dealt.

Derk Pereboom - "Determinism Al Dente" (1995)

Pasta al dente is firm to the bite, meaning that it is just soft enough to eat without snapping. Pereboom draws a metaphor to his position on determinism.

Soft determinism is another term for compatibilism, the view that determinism is true and yet we still have moral responsibility.

Hard determinism says that because determinism is true we do not have moral responsibility.

Pereboom makes the further distinction of extreme hard determinism which says that moral values and principles do not apply to us at all. Pereboom defends in this paper a version of hard determinism where moral values and principles still apply to us.

For Pereboom, us not having moral responsibility means we "never deserve blame for having performed a wrongful act."

Part I: Compatibilism

Pereboom lays out three versions of compatibilism: 

David Hume's desire view: an action is free when "desires that genuinely belong to the agent make up the immediate causal history of the action." 

Frankfurt's second-order desire view: not only must you have the freedom to act on your desire in order to be morally responsible, but the very desires you act on must themselves be desired.

John Fischer's responsiveness-to-reasons view: an action is free when it results from the agent's own reasoning.

But what if our desires, second-order desires, and rationality are determined? The incompatibilist intuition is that "if an action results from a deterministic causal process that traces back to factors beyond the control of the agent, he is not morally responsible for the action."

The compatibilist responds by pointing out that it's nonetheless our desires, second-order desires, and rationality that play an essential causal role. Because the causal history of our actions includes us in the right way, we are still morally blameworthy.

However, "What is needed is an argument against the fundamental incompatibilist claim, that if one's action results from a deterministic causal process that traces back to factors beyond one's control, to factors that one could not have produced, altered, or prevented, then one is not free in the sense required for moral responsibility."

Part 2: "Could have done otherwise"

Compatibilists accuse incompatibilists of relying on the "Principle of Alternate Possibilities" – also known as leeway freedom – which says that "moral responsibility requires that, given all of the factors that precede one's choice, one could have done otherwise than what one actually did."

Compatibilists will then use Frankfurt cases to undermine the belief that free will requires leeway freedom, thus undermining incompatibilism. But Pereboom argues that incompatibilists do not rely on leeway freedom for free will. So even if Frankfurt cases succeed, this will not defeat the free will skeptic.

Van Inwagen's famous Consequence Argument strongly suggests that given determinism, we do not have leeway freedom. But now consider a Frankfurt case (my paraphrase):

A billionaire has microchipped millions of Americans using vaccines. When an American goes to vote for a president that this billionaire doesn't want elected, the chip will detect this intention and change the voter's intention to vote for the other candidate. A voter then votes for the billionaire's candidate, on their own free will, without the need of the chip activating. So even though the voter does not have the freedom to vote otherwise, because they voted on their own freedom, they are morally responsible for their own vote. So, you can have moral responsibility without the ability to do otherwise.

Side note: I'm not convinced that Frankfurt cases show that "could have done otherwise" is not needed for moral responsibility. Clearly the person could have done otherwise (in the sense of immediate imaginability): we can easily imagine them willing otherwise such that the chip would have to activate and change the will of the voter. I believe this is called the "flicker of freedom" response. If a person wills otherwise, there's a flicker of freedom in the mind of the voter that is snuffed out by the chip's activation. So, for all I know, my intuition that the voter is responsible for their vote comes from the fact that they could have willed to vote otherwise even though that willing would not have been successful.

So I reject Frankfurt cases in one sense. In another sense, I think Frankfurt cases accidentally succeed in promoting a compatibilist insight, which is the insight that even if someone is determined, there is still the matter of the quality of the person qua organism. If someone is mind-controlled, under duress, coerced, imprisoned, has been drugged, or otherwise has their freedom restricted, then their actions tell us little about the quality of the person and only about the quality of their circumstances. If someone is free, on the other hand, to do what they want, then their actions tell us something important about the kind of person this person is (really, the kind of organism this person possesses).

Let's say the billionaire's candidate for president is a big fan of Hitler, and has campaigned using Nazi rhetoric and policies. If the voter votes for the Nazi candidate on their own will, then that tells us something about the voter: they are probably a Nazi themselves. But if the voter votes for the opposite candidate and is forced by the chip to vote for the Nazi, then it's very likely that this voter is not a Nazi. So if I don't know who has been chipped and who hasn't, suddenly I cannot tell by vote alone whether someone is a Nazi or not.

This is a very important insight, and in this sense I think Frankfurt cases succeed. But note that if someone does vote for the Nazi candidate, this doesn't mean they have free will. If they were determined to be a Nazi by factors beyond their control, then it's not fair to blame this person for being a Nazi. Nevertheless, it's still very useful knowledge to know whether someone is in fact a Nazi or not, because that information will change your views about the person and how you go about interacting with them, even if everything is determined. (How you have been determined in your views and attitudes combined with your knowledge that the voter is a Nazi itself determines how you will go about interacting with the voter.)

However, recall the fundamental intuition of the incompatibilist: moral responsibility requires that one's action not result from a process that traces back to factors beyond one's control. We might call this the "Traceability Principle" – if my actions can be traced to factors beyond my control, then those factors, not me, are to blame.

When your will is determined not by you but by the chip, then you are not at fault for your will. Likewise, when your will is determined not by you but by the laws of nature, then you are not at fault for your will.

Even Fischer argues that the Frankfurt case doesn't show that the incompatibilist must give up this intuition. The case doesn't specify whether the voter's actions were determined by causes other than the chip. We should not smuggle in an indeterministic assumption into the Frankfurt case. For the incompatibilist, even if moral responsibility does not require leeway freedom, it still requires one's action to not result from a causal process beyond one's control, and requiring our actions to not result from a causal process beyond our control does not require leeway freedom. Even if moral responsibility is entirely dependent upon sourcehood freedom, arguably sourcehood freedom is violated by traceability.

Part 3: Libertarianism

Pereboom discusses indeterminism, quantum mechanics, and freedom, concluding that: "This point reveals the fundamental difficulty for libertarian agent causation. Whether the physical laws are deterministic or quantum indeterministic, the antecedent probabilities of the physical components of human actions are fixed."

This reminds me of something John Heil says (Philosophy of Mind, 4th ed., pg 27-28):

"If probabilities are written into fundamental laws of nature, these probabilities are not the result of our ignorance in the face of the complexity of physical systems, nor do they simply express statistical frequencies. The probabilities are, as it were, built into the fundamental entities. In the imaginary case we are considering, it is an intrinsic—built-in—feature of an [S1] micro-system that it is 65% likely to go into state [S2] (during a particular interval). This does not imply that 65% of [S1] systems go into [S2]. It is consistent with this imaginary law that the relative frequency of [S1] to [S2] transitions is much less or much greater than 65%. In fact, it is possible, although of course highly unlikely, that no [S1] system ever goes into [S2]. If you imagine a force from outside nature intervening in a physical transaction governed by a statistical law, then you must imagine the force as somehow altering the probabilities that hold for the system in question . . . if these probabilities are built into the system, then their being altered would amount to a 'violation' of physical law."

The context of this quote is in discussion of Cartesian dualism and the interaction problem. But I think it fits here: Even if quantum mechanics gives us objective chance, if we cannot alter those probabilities, and if those probabilities determine our actions (i.e. it's not up to me whether I choose the sprite over the coke, it's up to how chance invents in my brain play out), then, even on indeterminism, our actions are still determined by processes out of our control.

This leads to a clarification of the traceability principle: 

"assuming the truth of our best scientific theories, determinism turns out to be false. However, the kinds of indeterminacies these theories posit provide us with no more control over our actions than we would have if determinism were true. Our actions may not result from deterministic causal processes that trace back to factors over which we have no control, but yet there are processes, either deterministic or indeterministic, over which we have no control, that produce our actions, and this is enough to rule out freedom of the sort required for moral responsibility."

Note: I believe Pereboom has since taken an agnostic stance on whether science reveals that our world is indeterministic.

Given confusions surrounding whether determinism is necessary or detrimental to free will, and over whether indeterminism is necessary or detrimental to free will, it might be worth using language of self-determined versus non-self-determined actions. It appears that whether determinism or indeterminism is true, our actions are non-self-determined, and yet our actions must be self-determined for moral responsibility.

The way van Inwagen describes determinism, per Pereboom: "a proposition that expresses the entire state of the universe at some instant in time, in conjunction with the physical laws, entails any proposition that expresses the state of the universe at any other instant."

Put another way, if someone had total knowledge of the universe and the laws of nature, they could perfectly predict the future. But if there is objective chance, then such a person (often called Laplace's Demon) would not be able to predict the future. Or, if we have self-determined actions, then Laplace's Demon would not be able to predict the future either, as doing so would require an essential bit of information: the choice of the agent, and the choice of the agent doesn't occur until the present moment.

This leads Pereboom to take on hard incompatibilism (though he doesn't use this term in this paper), which says regardless of whether determinism or indeterminism is true, in both cases our actions are non-self-determined, and thus we do not have moral responsibility.

Part 4: Objection from deliberation

The first objection Pereboom responds to is about deliberation. If we don't have free will, then we "have no reason to attempt to accomplish anything—to try to improve our lives or the prospects of society—because our deliberations and choices could make no difference."

I'd say: But our choices do make a difference, and because we are determined to understand this, we are determined to make the choices we believe to make the best difference.

Pereboom notes that this challenge has been issued to compatibilists as well, and their response—that our deliberations being determined doesn't change their causal efficacy—can be appropriated by the free will skeptic.

Pereboom says: "It is undeniable that we feel we have the ability to choose or do otherwise; for example, that you feel that it is now possible for you either to continue or to stop reading this article."

I admit that it's undeniable that we experience the sense of having options. We can imagine going with one option or going with another. We compare the likely pros and cons of different options and select the option with the overall best consequences. However, I do not have the sense that I could in fact choose any option other than the one I in fact choose, because I understand the causes for why I chose the option I did, and those causes are fixed. For me to have chosen otherwise, I would have had to have reasoned differently, either by having access to a different set of information than the one I in fact had access to, or to be in possession of a different reasoning process than the one I in fact possessed at the moment of my choice. I don't see how either of these things could have actually been different, though I can imagine these things being different, just as I can imagine other fictional scenarios.

So I accept the internal sense, even certainty, of having different options – I can imagine choosing otherwise – but I reject the idea that I have a similar sense that it's possible for me to choose other than how I will; I don't have that sense. In fact, I feel the opposite: I feel like I do not have the power to choose other than how I will; I feel forced in my choices.

Per Pereboom, Van Inwagen says that "anyone who denies the existence of free will must, inevitably, contradict himself with monotonous regularity." This is because the person who deliberates acts as if they believe it's possible for them to choose from different options. But based on what I've just said, I reject this. Van Inwagen is incorrect. When I deliberate, I do not believe nor act as if I believe that I could in fact choose other than I do. When I deliberate, I imagine myself making different choices and see the pros and cons of each option I'm aware of. But I believe that all I'm doing is witnessing my deliberation process unfold. I'm interested in engaging in this process as well as I can because, as mentioned above, my choices are causally efficacious, and I'm the one who has to live with my choices. So I'm interested in making the best choices I can make, and by deliberating I maximize the chances of making good choices. Of course, the quality of the choice that I will make is set in stone, just as is the quality of my ability to make choices. I have no choice over my ability to make choices. So, I have no choice over the quality of my choices. All I can do is hope and pray that I'm lucky enough to have the quality of deliberation needed to make the choices needed to live a life worth living. Much of what we are doing when we live our lives is bearing witness to the quality of our decision-making process, a quality that, again, we have no control over.

Pereboom allows for something like this; the free will skeptic is not irrationally believing, when deliberating, that they have the power to do otherwise when they do not.

Part 5: Deserving of praise and blame

If there is no moral responsibility, then no one deserves praise or blame for morally exemplary actions or morally reprehensible actions, respectively.

One might think that we have no choice but to act as if people are to blame for their wrongdoing. This would leave the free will skeptic with the irrational position of believing people do not deserve blame while acting as if they do.

But "Instead of blaming people, the determinist might appeal to the practice of moral admonishment and encouragement."

In other words, while we cannot praise and blame in one sense, we can praise and blame in another. We cannot attribute persons as the ultimate causes of their actions such that their actions say anything meaningful about the person itself, only the person's circumstances. We cannot blame or praise in that sense. But we can praise as in "sing the praises of" or as in admiring the goodness of what something happens to be, and we can encourage good behavior by rewarding it. Likewise, we can "blame" evil behavior in the sense of acknowledging the badness of it and discourage it through punishment.

Pereboom brings up the question: "But what of the character who regularly and deliberately does wrong, and refuses to make a commitment to doing what is right? Doesn't the hard determinist have little to say to such a person?"

His answer is having moral blame in addition to admonishment provides no obvious practical advantage. One idea might be that if we remove moral blame, then someone might use determinism as an excuse for their wrong actions. 

I'd say: One way to respond to this is that folks who use excuses for their wrong actions like this would find some way to rationalize their behavior either way. If not determinism, they would use another excuse. So determinism doesn't actually make things worse in practice.

But let's say there is someone who would only ever rationalize their evil actions if they came to believe determinism is true. When dealing with someone who does evil, we have few options: Arrest this person, use lethal force (if necessary), appeal to the person's reasoning, threaten the person, or train, condition, rehabilitate, or help the person in some psychological or material way that encourages them to change their behavior.

Whether someone freely comes to believe in determinism and freely uses it as an excuse, or whether someone is determined in doing so, either way our response to them is the same as responding to any other evildoer.

I'd also say, in agreement with Socrates, that no one deliberately does wrong. Everyone is engaging in moral calculations, some of them quite complex, and people have varying degrees of sophistication in their calculating. In every case, everyone arrives at an answer they see fit in that moment, even if moments later they realize they should have done otherwise.

Pereboom says:

"Abhorrence of a person because of the actions he has performed at least typically involves blaming him for those actions, which, in turn, presupposes that his actions and character did not result from processes beyond his control. If one were to discover that an especially wrongful "action" was caused by some non-psychological, physiological reaction in the person, one's abhorrence would tend to vanish, and this
would suggest that one's abhorrence was founded in blame."

We naturally hate bad things, and therefore we naturally hate that which causes bad things to happen. If someone has free will, then their person is the cause of the bad thing. So, naturally, we hate the person. But when we discover that someone was a victim of circumstances, that hatred naturally falls away and is replaced with sympathy as we realize that anyone, including ourselves, could have found ourselves in the same circumstances and turning out the same way. Persons, if determined, are either lucky or unlucky depending on the bodies they happen to be attached to.

This shows how belief in free will leads to hatred in a way free will skepticism does not. Free will skepticism is an anti-hatred, anti-judgment view, and indeed is as anti-hatred and anti-judgment one can get, at least within reason. (I suppose solipsism would be even more so than determinism, but solipsism is not a reasonable view.)

Sure, on free will skepticism you can be saddened by a person's immoral actions in the same way one is saddened by the destruction caused by an earthquake. But just as it would be silly to hate the earthquake, it would be silly to hate the immoral person. Free will skepticism amounts to the view that we should eliminate all hatred of all persons for all time and replace any hatred with sympathy.

Pereboom quotes Honderich as saying:

"There is no obstacle to my abhorrence of the desires and intentions of the treacherous husband foreseeing his divorce, or, more important, to my abhorrence of him, a man whose personality and character are consistent with these desires and intentions, and support them."

This is what the free will view amounts to: seething hatred. It is, for that reason, a morally bankrupt view.

Instead, the correct attitude, and the morally superior attitude, is to view it as tragic that the man would happen to have evil desires and intentions. Note that Honderich blames the man himself. But what, exactly, is he blaming? This is why a theory of personhood is essential to understanding free will. If we take persons to essentially be subjects, then it's incorrect to blame the man as a subject, as subjects are victims of their brains, bodies, and circumstances that led them to have the experiences they have, including the experiences of making evil choices.

But none of this prevents us from accurately acknowledging the true evil of the man's actions. Just as we acknowledge the real badness of the destruction the hurricane causes without hating any person there, so too we can acknowledge the badness of evil actions without hating any person there. Psychologically, adopting free will skepticism means shifting your hatred to sadness. Instead of feeling hatred for the mass shooter in the news, we should simply feel sad that this person's horrible circumstances would lead to such horrible actions.

This bifurcated view of blame applies to praise as well. Susan Wolf argues for an asymmetry view where we can appropriately praise, but not blame. She has us imagine two swimmers, each sees a child drowning and swims out to save it, purely out of desire to save the child for the sake of the child (and the parents, etc.). We suppose one can do otherwise and the other cannot. It seems like both are still praiseworthy. In fact, suppose that the swimmer that cannot do otherwise cannot do otherwise because of the swimmer's strong moral character; "her understanding of the situation is so good and her moral commitment so strong" that she must attempt to save the child. Far from detracting from her moral praiseworthiness, this would seem to increase it all the more.

But the bifurcated view comes to the rescue again. I agree with Pereboom's response: 

"If it were specified that her action results from a deterministic causal process that traces back to factors she could not have produced, altered, or prevented—perhaps by adding that she is controlled by neuroscientists—the intuition that she deserves praise might well vanish."

Just as we must replace hatred with sympathy, we must replace praise with something closer to appreciation or awe. Indeed, often our praise really takes the form of awe anyway. We should not give the swimmer any credit; the swimmer just so happens to be a kind and brave person in a way that is not up to them. But at the same time we can still appreciate the goodness of good actions.

This view beautifully eliminates problems surrounding ego, in two directions. Internally, I cannot take credit for whatever good qualities I happen to have. This needn't discourage me from being ambitious or from trying to be as good a person as I can be. Being good should be its own reward; no one should be good purely out of ego. That would be doing "the right thing for the wrong reasons." Externally, I needn't feel jealous whatsoever of the good qualities of others. Really, they are just lucky, and it's easier to be happier for them. 

Part 6: Making sense of 'oughts'

Here I disagree with Pereboom. If ought implies can, and yet we cannot do otherwise, then this threatens the truth of common sense ought statements like "He shouldn't have murdered his wife." Pereboom says:

"But even if moral 'ought' statements are never true, moral judgments, such as 'it is morally right for A to do x,' or 'it is a morally good thing for A to do x,' still can be."

This sounds like a contradiction to me. Moral judgments can only be true if moral oughts can, and vice versa; they are the same. I suppose if I took "ought" to imply leeway freedom, I would agree with Pereboom here and translate ought sentences to ones of acknowledging the superiority of alternative actions. But "ought" to me in the first place just means an imagining of alternative choices and seeing the superior one. Oughts have to do with choice elimination. We constantly are bombarded with options and we need a system for finding the best option and a language for when we find it. "Ought" is nothing more than a judgment of the best option from a list of options. "He shouldn't have murdered his wife" doesn't mean "He could have not murdered his wife, and that would have been better", it just means "Not murdering his wife was the better option." Someone could be determined to pick the worse option. Even still, he ought to have picked the better one. If oughts really do pick out leeway freedom, then in my view oughts would simply have to be paraphrased over or translated, and once this is done we retain common sense moral beliefs of some options being objectively better than others without the mistaken belief that one had the power to choose other than they did.

I agree with Pereboom that "One might argue that if moral 'ought' statements were never true, we could have no reason to do what is right. But this view is mistaken."

If oughts are mistaken, they are only partially mistaken; only the part that implies leeway freedom. But the superiority-of-choice part could be kept. If someone restricts themselves only to believe truths, then this person might discard "oughts" as false, and no longer believe that it's true they ought to do anything. But if the superiority-of-choice aspect contained in oughts is dropped too, that would be throwing the baby out with the bathwater. It would be absurd to deliberately choose choices you know to be worse (something I think is in any case impossible to do) just because you want to restrict yourself to true actions. It is exactly because you have restricted yourself to true actions that you act according to your calculations. It's just unfortunate that we often miscalculate things.

Part 7: Negative reactive attitudes

PF Strawson famously discusses reactive attitudes in his paper "Freedom and Resentment." I grant the point I gather Strawson is making, that we cannot help our reactive attitudes, and yet if these attitudes depend on belief in moral responsibility, then we appear committed to moral responsibility. (I haven't read the paper yet, so I'm shooting in the dark here. For another time.)

Pereboom then asks: "first, whether the reactive attitudes really are immune from alteration by a belief in determinism, and second, whether it would be good for them to be altered by such a belief . . ."

Based on what I've said above, I think it's absolutely the case that reactive attitudes can be changed by belief in free will skepticism; I've seen it first hand within myself. Second, of course it would be good to have these attitudes changed, as free will skepticism is the more loving, sympathetic, empathetic, understanding, anti-judgment, anti-hatred, anti-ego view. It's the better view, morally.

However, if it's wrong to hate the soul of the person for what they've done, is it wrong to love the soul too, as the soul deserves neither love nor hate? Pereboom says:

"Strawson is right to believe that objectivity of attitude would destroy interpersonal relationships. But he is mistaken to think that objectivity of attitude would result or be appropriate if determinism were to undermine the reactive attitudes."

Importantly, reactive attitudes of hatred, borne out of a view of free will, can ruin interpersonal relationships, whereas people who did not believe in free will would have lacked this hatred. In fact, if someone took a more objective stance and looked upon their family member, friend, roommate, or whoever, as something "to be managed or handled or cured or trained", then this person could achieve an unusually high level of emotional maturity. Typically we let how others make us feel get the better of us. If someone makes us feel bad, all we want to do is say hurtful things or to leave. But if someone has the emotional maturity to set those feelings aside and look at the situation more objectively, they may figure out a way to navigate the social puzzle involving the family member, friend, or roommate, and even improve or restore the relationship instead of exacerbating the situation or simply leaving the relationship entirely. In short, hatred can blind you to the truth of what's really going on, or to how you should really approach the social situation. A more objective outlook could give you the power to set emotions to the side and to see the person not as something hostile, but something to be understood.

There are two ways in which free will skepticism can still lead to hatred. While it's true we should not hate the person, because it's true that we can still take on a critical stance of someone, it can be difficult to rein in this critical stance and not let it slip into hatred. In fact, someone could argue that free will skepticism opens you up all the more to a hateful attitude, because suddenly there's no moral burden to your hatred. After all, you're not hating the person, only the person's organism, or something like this. So, you can hate all the more, believing your hatred to be innocently directed at the person's body, brain, actions, or what have you, and not really directed at the person. And if anything is worse than hatred, it's hatred with a clean conscience.

That's one potential issue. Another potential issue has to do with loving the person as a subject versus hating the person as a subject. If we view love as, minimally, the regarding of something as good, and if we regard good things as those things that are good in virtue of the intrinsic, extrinsic, or saving goodness, and if hatred is, minimally, the regarding of something as bad, and if we regard bad things as those things that are bad in virtue of the intrinsic, extrinsic, or depriving badness, and if we then allow ourselves to love the other as something of immense extrinsic goodness, and indeed primary goodness, as goodness must ultimately cash out in terms of intrinsic goodness, which requires personhood, then it appears that while we can love someone in the sense of delighting in them, allowing them to make us happy, delighting in their happiness, then we would in theory be forced to hate someone if they are miserable. But this is not true when we take hatred to include an intense negative emotional experience. Instead, we might pity someone, which is to view them as lacking in extrinsic value now, while acknowledging it's not their fault that this is the case, and acknowledge that in theory this person could be happy and thus a source of value rather than disvalue. After all, when we see someone suffering, often our first instinct is simply to feel sad for them. So free will skepticism needn't invite hatred on this account, and if anything blocks hatred from manifesting.

To the first problem, I think it's appropriate to hate bad things, and as long as hating someone's organism is very much like hating someone's cancer, then I don't see anything wrong with this. Your hatred is completely not directed at them but at something bad that has happened to them out of their control. What's being described above is really a kind of hatred of the person itself and disguising it as something it's not. I acknowledge that it's extremely difficult sometimes to separate a person from their body or brain, and thus it's tempting to lump them together and hate the whole. But this is a mistake. It is so unfair to hate someone for something beyond their control, and yet humans tend to recourse to this as we see in the ubiquity of bigotry towards things like skin color, looks, and sexual orientation. It's okay to hate stupidity, selfishness, small-mindedness, and all the vices that people have, but it's never okay to hate the person for having these, as the person was forced to have them by circumstance.

Continuing with free will skepticism and love, Pereboom makes great points:

". . . parents love their children rarely, if ever, because these children possess the freedom required for moral responsibility, or because they freely (in this sense) choose the good, or because they deserve to be loved. But moreover, when adults love each other, it is also seldom, if at all, for these kinds of reasons. Explanations for love are complex."

So while I acknowledge some give and take when it comes to both views, free will versus free will skepticism, and interpersonal relationships, I see free will skepticism as very much arriving on top as the superior view.